1 Corinthians 15:29

reads:

“Otherwise what will they do, those who are baptized for the dead, if the dead do not rise at all?  Why are they then baptized for the dead?”

Now, this verse has caused a lot of controversy, and a few groups have gone so far as to, on the basis  of it, institute practices in which living people are baptized on behalf of the dead.

But with a verse like this, where the strange phrase which simply mentions ‘baptism of the dead’ without elaboration, it seems a bit rash to start a whole new practice based on it.  Perhaps a more likely explanation is what the NET Bible notes suggest:

some Corinthians had undergone baptism to bear witness to the faith of fellow believers who had died without experiencing [it]. . . . Paul’s reference . . .  is neither a recommendation nor a condemnation. He simply uses it as evidence . . .  to bolster his larger argument, begun in 15:12, that resurrection from the dead is a present reality in Christ and a future reality for them.

That would make sense.  And so, if the NET translators are right, the point of the passage is the reality of the resurrection, and whether the early Corinthians did or did not practice some sort of baptism for the dead at some point is a question of historical and not doctrinal significance, as nowhere in the Bible do we any encounter any hint of a recommendation for any sort of baptism for the dead.

This entry was posted in uncategorized. Bookmark the permalink. Post a comment or leave a trackback: Trackback URL.

54 Comments

  1. Posted 1650, 23rd February, 2010 at 1650, 23rd February, 2010 | Permalink

    Dear JL,

    You have said,

    Even some Evangelicals acknowledge it could not have been written by a fourteen year old boy with three years formal education.

    Come on now. That sort of nonsensical argument would not even be worth responding too, where it not for the fact that some poor sap might be reading our comments and believe your claim that 14-year-old Joseph Smith produced this work. The B of M was not published until 1830, when Smith was 25, and by his own account he did not begin translation work until 1827, when he was 22 years old.

    The fact that a 25-year-old would publish something evangelical scholars wouldn’t expect from a 14-year-old means nothing.

  2. JLFuller
    Posted 1658, 23rd February, 2010 at 1658, 23rd February, 2010 | Permalink

    You are correct in that Joseph didn’t begin the translation process until several years after the first visit. He was fourteen when He saw God and Christ. Good catch. Of course I can’t speak for Evangelicals at all. I was just passing on what one Baptist preacher told me.

  3. JLFuller
    Posted 1700, 23rd February, 2010 at 1700, 23rd February, 2010 | Permalink

    Joel
    Thanks for the response.

  4. JLFuller
    Posted 1701, 23rd February, 2010 at 1701, 23rd February, 2010 | Permalink

    Mitchell
    Thanks for the time you have taken to respond.

One Trackback

  1. [...] brings up a very controversial subject – For thus say those who are stubborn in folly:–Why did the Apostle say,–Different is [...]

Post a Comment

Your email is never published nor shared. Required fields are marked *

*
*

You may use these HTML tags and attributes: <a href="" title=""> <abbr title=""> <acronym title=""> <b> <blockquote cite=""> <cite> <code> <del datetime=""> <em> <i> <q cite=""> <strike> <strong>

Subscribe without commenting